Re: water into wine - what is it a sign of?



On 2008-05-11, fergus <ferguscapewrath@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

It deals with the possible claim that they were ordinary amphorae that had
been used for wine and the taste of the wine still lingered, deceiving the
half-cut groom and guests.

Surely they'd have to have been more than half cut to be deceived by
that!

Or half drunk?

I've seen this interpreted as being symbolic of the new and old
covenants and all sorts of things being inferred, or read into, that.
It all seems very cryptic though, as evidenced by the multitudes of
incompatible interpretations.

What do others think? Was it because my original question was a silly
one that only one person answered??

If you emphasise the bit about the containers not having previously
contained wine then you sound like a stage magician saying "Look -
there's nothing up my sleeves". Either God does a good stage magician
act and wants to be sure, or maybe someone did ask later and maybe the
story was adapted, who knows?

I remember little of the story - beyond apparently some water got turned
into wine at some point. I'd wonder why do that.

- Richard

--
_/_/_/ _/_/_/ _/_/_/ Richard dot Corfield at gmail dot com
_/ _/ _/ _/
_/_/ _/ _/ Time is a one way street,
_/ _/ _/_/ _/_/_/ except in the Twilight Zone
.



Relevant Pages

  • Re: water into wine - what is it a sign of?
    ... been used for wine and the taste of the wine still lingered, deceiving the ... half-cut groom and guests. ...
    (uk.religion.christian)
  • Re: Frances earliest winery found
    ... Massiliotic amphorae, which probably contained wine, were traded as ... far away as southern Germany in the early 5th c. BCE. ... Drinking sets, made up of a largish container and matching cups, often ...
    (sci.archaeology)