Re: "I am both Muslim and Christian" Rev Ann Holmes Redding

In message <641lo3pss8e0spke52vusc7bmcaeqhg5pe@xxxxxxx>
Alec Brady <alec.brady@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

But the Greek for 'I AM' in the Septuagint version of that verse is
'ho ón', while what Jesus says is 'egó eimi'. So if John had meant to
imply a reference back to Exodus, why doesn't he use the same phrase?

I've no idea - apart from the probability that Greek was not John's native
language. If Jesus had *not* meant to imply a reference back to Exodus, why
did He use bad grammar?

God bless,
Kendall K. Down

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