Re: Definitive proof ;-)

On Mon, 19 Mar 2007 18:38:33 GMT, Ziggy <ziggy317@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On 19 Mar 2007 18:20:16 +0000 (GMT), David Damerell
<damerell@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

Er, no. If the relative number of accidents is not known, then the
first experiment shows nothing; ie, it does not provide a good
reason.

So you actually mean "ER, yes". I didn't say that the first
experiment was valid but the second one wasn't.

I asked what was the point of the second experiment.

You see David - he's not wrong, he's just a hypocrite. That's OK then.
It's perfectly reasonable of him (her, it) to demand a higher standard
of everyone else's argument. It's fine for ziggy to present one-sided
argument, but anyone else doing so is a zealot.

Must be another irregular verb -
I am debating
You are arguing
He is a zealot

The first experiment was posited to show that there was a
POSSIBILITY that a helmet might be effective. This it shows.

NO IT DOES NOT.

Until yopu've done it, it doesn't show anything at all. When you've
done the experiment, you can use it to support your case. Until
you've done teh experiment you cannot. Experiments don't
automatically prove what their proponent wants them to prove, you know
(you _do_ know that, don't you?).

regards, Ian SMith
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