Re: Libel question (slow news day !)

M. J. Powell wrote:
In message <1180016203.181657.238550@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, Jethro <jethro_uk@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes
I recall reading on this very newsgroup, a few years back that is was
possible, in English law, to libel someone in a foreign langauge.

Pondering on that, if true (usual usenet disclaimer) I wondered how it
works.

Suppose the libel can be interpreted one of two ways. One libellous,
one not. To imagine a parallel, suppose a French writer described a
leading politician in English as "gay" meaining carefree and happy.

Would both sides have to slug it out on context ?

Pursuing the issue further, suppose someone printed an encrypted text,
which could be decrypted one way to say "Mr X is a lovely fellow", but
could equally validly be decrypted to say "Mr X is a vile Paedophile".
Could that be considered libellous. What is the legal difference (for
libel) between a foreign langauge and an encrypted text ?

I must get out more.

Twlch dyn pob sais.

Rub some antiseptic ointment on the itchy part - see a doctor if the rash doesn't clear within a week.


Mike
.

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