Re: did I hear correctly? - damaging his own car


Cynic wrote:
On 3 May 2006 01:54:00 -0700, "Willy" <bbapwilson@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

Not if it was his sole property. You cannot commit criminal damage on
your own property (otherwise it would be illegal to scrap anything you
own).

It had been seized at the time and was in the care and control of the
police. Therefore, the charge was technically correct

Did the type of seizure in question amount to a transfer of ownership?
If not (e.g. seized as evidence), then IIUC he could not be charged
with criminal damage (though there may be other offences he could be
charged with).

If it was a seizure for e.g. recovery of a debt or similar, then it
would mean that the car did not in fact belong to him at the time, and
therefore criminal damage was indeed committed.

--
Cynic


it was seized as a result of no tax or insurance with the required
notice served on him for seizure and distruction

.

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