Re: Goods

On Wed, 29 Aug 2007 21:08:33 +0000 (UTC), tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
(Tony Mountifield) wrote:

In article <46d5a7c8$0$11450$db0fefd9@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Blue Sow <janet.read@xxxxxxxx> wrote:
There seems to be a change of usage in progress whereby 'goods' is being
replaced by 'good'.

SOED p. 1125 gives:
3 (property and possessions) Now only in pl.
4 In pl. (commodities etc).

The use of 'now only' in definition 3 suggests earlier use of the singular?

The following is from BBC News:
"As such, healthcare in Britain is considered a social right rather than a
consumer good or something to be 'earned'."

In this instance, and in several others heard in recent times, the singular
'good' is used.

I can't answer your question, but healthcare is services rather than goods,
isn't it?

"I'll have three healthcares, please!"

The singular was commonly used in philosophical discussions of
economics and social policy and, I assume, still is. The man from
Google, he say "Yes".
--
Phil C.



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