Re: Use of home as office - allowable expense?

Martin wrote:
"Ronald Raygun" <no.spam@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message news:cLR6j.60195$c_1.31389@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Martin wrote:

"Ronald Raygun" <no.spam@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
The cost of anything can be typically be split into three parts:
(a) that part which is exclusively private,
(b) that which is exclusively for business,
(c) that which is mixed-use and so does not fit into either (a) or (b).

The cost of outgoing personal calls would be in (c)
do you mean (b) ?
No, (a).

D'oh - sorry. Maybe we both have faulty keyboards :-)

and line rental
is in (b)
do you mean (c) ?
Yes. Sorry I jumbled up the letters. Just testing. :-)

Damn - I only got 50%... :-((

HMRC had dealt with that. "The cost of business calls is allowable. Also
allow a proportion of the line rental (based on the ratio of business use
to total use). This proportion should reflect all aspects of use,
including incoming calls, though in most cases reference to itemised
outgoing calls will provide a reasonable and acceptable measure. "
Where do they actually say this? It appears to have no basis in law
so is presumably some kind of ESC.

It's stuff released, I think, about last Feb.

http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/manuals/bimmanual/BIM47800.htm

Do read the following pages, too. There are plenty of specifics.

HTH


Martin,

Did you not read the first paragraph that reads

This chapter explains what expenses are allowable when someone who is self-employed uses part of their home for business purposes. It does not apply to the use of home by an employee or director - for this see EIM32760 onwards.

.

Relevant Pages

  • Re: Use of home as office - allowable expense?
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  • Re: Use of home as office - allowable expense?
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