Re: Moving company bank money around...

In message <2qk633dledi2132thpg5hpt9i746t9irut@xxxxxxx>, Peter Saxton <peter@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes
On Sat, 28 Apr 2007 13:05:57 +0100, Keith <keith@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

In message <eq1633tvh1h5h8q0mj8oc2e9siu208pgf0@xxxxxxx>, Peter Saxton
<peter@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes
On Sat, 28 Apr 2007 08:54:33 +0100, "Tim" <me@xxxxxxx> wrote:

"Peter Saxton" wrote
The profit isn't owed to the shareholders. A dividend has to
be declared before the shareholders are entitled to the money.

If that's the case, then who do you think gets the
money in the case of winding-up the company?

What's that got to do with it? Keith is saying that the shareholders
can take the money whenever they want.

No I have not .

Re-read *exactly* what I have written, and try not to indulge in your
regular trick of false interpretation.

So, when I said: "Are you saying that a shareholder can take company
funds whenever the shareholder wishes?"

and you replied: "In general no. In this instance - where the
shareholder and director are the same and the question is in regards
to a loan - the answer is yes."

this was not what you wrote and I falsely interpreted it?

This is exactly the case what the OP is discussing.

'Taking' the money is not what the OP questioned - he questioned a loan.

If your sentence above had said - " Keith is saying that the shareholder, in this instance, can take a loan whenever they want" I would agree.
--
Keith replace nospam with ilf0rd
.

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