Re: California Supreme Court Overturns Ban on Gay Marriage


"Jim Yanik" <jyanik@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:Xns9AA3F3E55EF79jyanikkuanet@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Magus <nope@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in
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Herb Martin wrote:
"RD (The Sandman)" <rdsandman(spamlock)@comcast.net> wrote in message
news:Xns9AA3A7781AF1CSandman@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
grey_ghost471-newsgroups@xxxxxxxxx (Gray Ghost) wrote in
news:Xns9AA283D857FFFWereofftoseethewizrd@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx:


That's because words have meaning. Marriage has a specific definiton
based on religion, law and societal health.
And if a law is passed that allows homosexual marriage, one of your
bases just changed.

There is a legitimate case to be made to deny the change of definition
of marriage, while at the same time no two (or more) people who wish
to be in a union similar to marriage should be treated differently than
those in a "marriage" are treated.

Adults who wish to join in union should be able to do so with exactly
the same government imposed responsibilities AND goverment offered
benefits.

This does not require the government to mandate the change of the
English language -- just the law.


My issue with the whole marriage thing is that the state shouldn't be
involved in it to begin with.

I guess a brother and sister can now marry,or more than two people can
marry....
after all,it's "not hurting anybody else"...and who's to judge?

Sounds reasonable -- the government MIGHT be justified in requiring
informed consent or perhaps counselling to eliminate birth defects
due to simple ignorance.

Having to ask state permission to be married started when couples of
different races wanted to be married. The early marriage licenses were a
license of permission granted by public authority to persons who intend
to "intermarry".


got a cite for that?

--
Jim Yanik
jyanik
at
kua.net


.

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