Re: clarify or clogify? re: Why the human race is growing apart



On Sun, 12 Apr 2009 03:26:17 -0700, tgdenning wrote:

Let's do this one first.

2) Direct test scores:

Assume that we begin with a range of integer scores, and there is no
rounding or classification. Then indeed it is *not* highly probable (but
not necessarily zero or very low probability) that groups of half the
population will have the identical mean score.

Right.

Of course, this is not a
realistic scenario, but it seems to be the basis of (your) argument.

I'm not sure what you mean by realistic. If there's a dataset you'd like
to analyze, we could move this into the realm of the concrete pretty
easily.

Also keep in mind the numbers that I was showing you were reals from a
normal distribution. Raw test scores tend to be integers out of a
Poisson, right?

v<-rpois(n=5000, lambda=65)
mean(v)
[1] 64.9058
median(v)
[1] 65

mean(v[1:1000])
[1] 64.775
median(v[1:1000])
[1] 65

mean(v[1001:2000])
[1] 64.905
median(v[1001:2000])
[1] 65

et cetera.



However, in this scenario, I don't see that decreasing SD by increasing
the size of the two samples increases the probability of the two samples
being identical and equal to the population mean, which you and the
other guy suggest.

No -- this might be the misunderstanding. The probability that the
samples are identical probably *decreases* (depending on your data), but
the difference between sample means and the sample mean and the
population mean will also be decreasing.

You seem to be having it both ways if you make that
argument. I am open to correction on this but but you have to make the
case.

You're correct here as far as I can tell.



.



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