The Artifact Hypothesis
- From: Seanpit <seanpitnospam@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 17 Dec 2007 08:27:41 -0800 (PST)
Richard Forrest:
No, it's the argument that if we observe something being made we know
that the object we see was made and *how* it was made.
Sean Pitman:
We also know, most of the time anyway, that the object we see being
made could also be made in many different ways.
Richard Forrest:
So what? Are you saying that because
science doesn't offer absolutes, no
evidence is of any value?
How many times have I pointed out that science is never about
absolutes, but about *degrees* of certainty? Science produces
predictive value that is certainly useful while never being
absolute.
That is why the finding of a highly symmetrical polished granite cube
can be very reasonably hypothesized to be the result of deliberate
manufacture. It fulfills both sides of the equation you yourself use
for the detection of artifact. We know how it could have been
manufactured (Part A) and we know that no known non-deliberate force
of nature can mimic such a form in the material of granite (Part B).
You use the very same argument to support your proposal that certain
"tool marks" are in fact tool marks. You argue that you know how they
could have been manufactured (Part A) because you've seen similar if
not identical markings being produced by certain forms of
manufacture. You also say that there is no known non-deliberate force
of nature that can mimic such tool marks (Part B). Therefore, you can
adequately conclude that these markings are in fact "artifacts".
Where is the difference between your basis for determining the
artifactual nature of tool marks and my basis for determining the
artifactual nature of a highly symmetrical polished granite cube?
Sean Pitman
www.DetectingDesign.com
.
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