Re: Brits are Basque and Celts are Semitic?
- From: nospam@xxxxxxxxxx (Paul Ciszek)
- Date: Tue, 6 Mar 2007 03:04:19 +0000 (UTC)
In article <1173143894.719621.204970@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Bodega <michael.palmer1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
That has not stopped the attempt. Stephen Oppenheimer, a medical
geneticist at the University of Oxford, says the historians' account
is wrong in almost every detail. In Dr. Oppenheimer's reconstruction
of events, the principal ancestors of today's British and Irish
populations arrived from Spain about 16,000 years ago, speaking a
language related to Basque.
[snip]
This new population, who lived by hunting and gathering, survived a
sharp cold spell called the Younger Dryas that lasted from 12,300 to
11,000 years ago. Much later, some 6,000 years ago, agriculture
finally reached the British Isles from its birthplace in the Near
East.
Agriculture may have been introduced by people speaking Celtic, in Dr.
Oppenheimer's view. Although the Celtic immigrants may have been few
in number, they spread their farming techniques and their language
throughout Ireland and the western coast of Britain.
Later immigrants arrived from northern Europe had more influence on
the eastern and southern coasts. They too spread their language, a
branch of German, but these invaders' numbers were also small compared
with the local population.
Thank you for posting this. The idea that the pre-Celtic inhabitants
of Ireland were from Iberia is not new, but (as your article says) the
assumption has always been that they were displaced by later people.
However, how do you conclude from the quoted text that anyone involved
is Semetic? Basque is not related to any Semetic language so far as
I know. Iberia has had its share of Semetic influx, but if that
happened *before* Iberia colonized Ireland and Britain, the part of
the article you quoted says nothing about it.
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