Re: Cost of sex - a bargain!
- From: John Harshman <jharshman.diespamdie@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 16 Aug 2006 19:47:34 GMT
allanm wrote:
Windy wrote:
allanm wrote:
My contention here is that meiotic defection, all other things being
equal, is selectively neutral. The two-for-one cost cannot be realised
because, as far as I can see, the defector cannot arise in such a way
that males are disfavoured with respect to the defector locus.
There are two 'alleles' - homologues, really, because there is
reproductive isolation: - Be-Asexual and Don't-Be-Asexual.
Don't-Be-Asexual is copied into every male and female descendant of a
sexual population. If not, where does it reside, in the genome?
Be-Asexual will get copied into each and every descendant.
Don't-Be-Asexual can only be sure of getting into 50% of the
descendants; in others, it may be supplanted by Don't-Be-Asexual-2,
Don't-Be-Asexual-3, or any other allele; even Be-Asexual, in case the
asexuality only manifests in some conditions.
-- w.
You really are missing it; I'm sorry to sound contentious. It doesn't
matter what gene Be-Asexual arose from.
Don't-Be-Asexual is not an 'allele' of Be-Asexual at all.
Don't-Be-Asexual is the ancestral state - all alleles, anywhere, which
do NOT promote asexual reproduction. in a functional sexual female.
"It" - a disparate set of genes - is copied to EVERY offspring of a
sexually reproducing female. There is no 50% gain for a ***defecting***
gene.
No. What there is is a 50% gain for all alleles present in any genome
that has the Be-Asexual allele. Therefore all those alleles will
increase in frequency. You could if you like consider them all as
hitchhikers except for Be-Asexual.
Males have daughters too; has everyone forgotten that? Where do theirHalf from the father, half from the mother. So the mother's genes could
genes come from?
be reproduced twice as much by dispensing with the father. What does the
fact that males have daughters contribute to this?
.
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