Re: An infinite number question

On 21 Jan 2006 20:36:08 -0800, "rev.goetz" <jimgoetz316@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

>I am working on a theoretical issue that deals with infinity, and I
>need to know the following: does an infinite number divided by an
>infinite number equal 0 or 1?
>
>I tend to think that the answer is 0, but I could also see that it may
>equal 1. Can anybody help me with this?

You have now received a lot of answers. I have seen zero, one,
infinity, and undefined in various posts. On the other hand, there
have been a number of posts trying to explain the mathematics behind
the situation.

Let me second the motions of the mathematicians (being mathematically
trained, myself). The question only has meaning in the following
sense: what is the limit of a quotient when both numerator and
denominator go to infinity? Otherwise there is no answer. And the
answer to the limit is: it depends on the details of the problem.
Others have explained the calculus behind determining the answer.



.

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