Re: Morality, humanity and the 1%
- From: eswrite@xxxxxxxxx
- Date: 5 Aug 2005 14:58:12 -0700
John Harshman wrote:
> eswrite@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
>
> > John Harshman wrote:
> >
> >>eswrite@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
> >>
> >>
> >>>Alfred A. Aburto Jr. wrote:
> >>>
> >>>
> >>>>>jspaceman@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
> >>>>>>From the article:
> >>>>>--------------------------------------
> >>>>>Which brings us, finally, to intelligent design. Some of America's most
> >>>>>powerful politicians have a deep hatred for Darwinism.
> >>>>
> >>>>I think this is because they think we cannot be humans without god and
> >>>>religion. That we can't have morals without god and religion.
> >>>>
> >>>>They are short sighted and wrong of course!
> >>>
> >>>Okay. I'll play. Where do morals come from, exactly? Without a
> >>>transcendent source, how do we define them?
> >>
> >>How do we define them *with* a transcendent source? Or are transcendent
> >>sources right by definition? If so, why?
> >
> > Good question. Presumably, the alleged designer would have a lot better
> > idea how things are to run than the designed. Does that make sense?
>
> No. And even if he does, who's to say that he made rules for our benefit
> rather than his own?
>
> >>The existence of god does
> >>nothing to solve the problem of the source of morality. If god is the
> >>source, does that mean that tomorrow he could change the rules so that
> >>murder is good?
> >
> > What if *he*--never mind what I say--that he doesn't change the rules,
> > or that in fact, he himself doesn't change? Would that solve your
> > conundrum?
>
> No. Who's to say he's telling the truth? Who's to say that he ever said
> such a thing? And the changeability doesn't matter anyway. It's the
> arbitrariness. If it isn't arbitrary, then it has some objective basis.
> Either way, god can't be the source.
>
> >>You might say that he wouldn't do that, but what's the
> >>basis for saying so? Would it be wrong for him to change the rules? The
> >>paradox you must confront is that if god is the source of morality, then
> >>morality is indeed arbitrary, exactly what you accuse it of being in
> >>god's absence.
> >
> > Only if you assume that God will behave arbitrarily. If you tell me he
> > must because otherwise he's not omnipotent, that doesn't wash. Not
> > behaving arbitrarily is his choice (some would argue, his nature), and
> > if you mandate that he _must_ behave arbitrarily, then you have robbed
> > him of his choice, and hence his omnipotence by your fiat, not by
> > reality.
>
> No matter, I wasn't going to make that argument at all. But if god isn't
> behaving arbitrarily, then he must have some objective basis for his
> rules, in which case he's not the source.
>
> >>>If morals are merely a
> >>>socio-cultural phenomenom, a result of evolutionary forces on the human
> >>>species to further its success (i.e., we play nice and get along with
> >>>one another in a cooperative effort to enhance our survival and
> >>>reproductive success), what happens when the niche changes such that
> >>>now we should murder, maime and steal from one another in order to
> >>>succeed?
> >>
> >>If that were the case, then murder etc. would be moral by definition.
> >>But this is your strawman. Few people (nobody I know) are suggesting
> >>that selective value and morality are synonymous.
> >
> > I am not saying they are synonymous. I am simply echoing what I've
> > heard suggested here and elsewhere, that one (selective value) drives
> > the other. That doesn't land them on the same Thesaurus entry, but it
> > does tie them together. But perhaps you reject the connection. If so,
> > where, exactly does morality come from?
>
> That's not an easy question. And that's what I'm saying. You have an
> easy answer, but it's the wrong answer.
>
> >>>Enquiring minds want to know, ASAP. In fact, who are we to
> >>>fault certain African tribes when they slaughter one another, when in
> >>>fact, at the very base of their actions, lies a raw struggle for
> >>>survival and the passing on of genetic material? Ditto for Kosovo.
> >>
> >>Actually, I don't think that natural selection explains any of that
> >>directly. It may explain our natural propensities to kill other people;
> >>but in that case our morality is directly opposed to selection. And this
> >>is the more common position among biologists.
> >>
> >>You ask a real question, but your belief that you have the answer is
> >>false. I think that the basis of morality is an unverifiable assumption
> >>that I would call empathy, the idea that other people are in some way
> >>interchangeable with you. How we got that is unclear. Could be from
> >>evolution, could be from god. But however we got it, it's independent of
> >>its source.
> >
> > So you punt. Okay, but no points on the score board.
>
> Was this about points?
>
> >>>>In fact sometimes I think religion leads us to be inhuman to others.
> >>>
> >>>We should be careful not to confuse the transcendent moral code with
> >>>the often flawed interpretation and implementation thereof.
> >>
> >>A perfect out. If we do good, it's because of religion. If we do bad,
> >>it's because we didn't interpret the religion properly. Now there's an
> >>omphalos argument.
> >
> > A perfect out for human responsibility, the way you put it. I'm saying
> > humans are responsible for their actions regardless of the driving
> > force behind them.
>
> OK, fine. But what the previous poster was saying is that sometimes
> religious is the driving force.
>
> >>>The only
> >>>one (not thing or theory or belief system) at fault for inhumanity,
> >>>alas, is the human being himself. But is he truly at "fault" when he
> >>>himself is in charge of defining what constitutes a "fault" in the
> >>>first place? If we define "humanity" or the lack thereof based on the
> >>>1% of genetic material that separates us from our nearest relative, why
> >>>shouldn't we behave like him 99% of the time?
> >>
> >>Do you really see any force in this argument? I don't. It seems only a
> >>silly rhetorical game to me.
> >
> > Now _that_'s a perfect out, stage left, if I have ever seen one.
>
> No, that's the part where you explain why your claim makes sense.
That's where I point out I was making an argument from absurdity. Of
course I don't think it follows, but in the spirit of scientific
objectivism, where else would you point me for a difference between
human and inhuman?
> You
> seem to be saying that, assuming evolution, we should act like something
> a percentage of the time proportional to our degree of genetic
> similarity. So if I'm 73% genetically similar to a cow, then I should
> act like a cow 73% of the time. Explain to me why that would be.
After you explain why it isn't, which is why I have been asking all
along.
> And just who is it that's defining humanity based on the 1% that
> separates us from chimps?
Absent any other (transcendent) standard, how else would you define it?
Hint: the answer is related to the "morality's source" thingy.
.
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