Re: The logic of atheism

Paul Holbach wrote:

I need to add that there also are infinite conjunctions which are
nevertheless complete and thus completely knowable.
For example, a proposition that is a conjunction of truths, the number
of conjuncts of which is identical to the number of natural numbers,
which is a transfinite number, is completely knowable as true by an
infinite mind.

So the definition above should be qualified as follows:

"x is omniscient"
=def
"x completely knows any conjunction of knowable truths apart from the
conjunction of all knowable truths"

"Any conjunction of knowable truths is known to be true by x, except
for the conjunction of all knowable truths."

But the crucial problem remains the same:
For every actually known conjunction of truths there is a further
conjunction of truths that is not actually known. Therefore, even the
knowledge of an infinite divine mind is inevitably incomplete.
Nobody can actually know all truths altogether.

I think Ben is right insofar as the basic atheological argument is
quite simple:

Nobody, including God, is omniscient, i.e. all-knowing, if it is
impossible to know all (i.e. all that is true or the case). It is in
fact impossible to know all, and therefore nobody, including God, is
actually omniscient, i.e. all-knowing.
So God might be called "superknowledgeable" but not "all-knowing".

Regards
PH

.

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