Re: Could someone explain this to me, please?
- From: "Al E. Gator" <ho.ho@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 29 Sep 2007 21:52:40 -0400
in the most simple terms it means that when you elect retarded, criminal
hillbillies you get screwed, the criminal goes free, the government collects
the fine
that you paid and gives it back to the criminal in tax cuts
<emily2@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:eulrf3ti54oarnc0p8kc1m7lbqdpgnf76l@xxxxxxxxxx
There was an item on the ABC evening news which confused me; here are
some excerpts from the story --
"Bristol-Myers Squibb Co. and a former subsidiary have agreed to pay
more than $515 million to settle federal and state investigations into
their drug marketing and pricing practices.
In 2004, Pfizer Inc. paid $430 million in fines to settle allegations
it marketed the epilepsy drug Neurontin for pain and psychiatric
illnesses.
In 2001, TAP Pharmaceutical Products paid $875 million to settle
allegations it inflated prices and bribed doctors to prescribe its
prostate cancer drug Lupron."
How do you "settle" an investigation? How do you "settle"
allegations?
Apparently, in the Pfizer case, fines were paid. Should I assume this
confusing story means that B-MS and TAP also paid fines? Are these
fines paid to the government? What does the government do with this
money?
The story refers to "pricing practices" and "inflated prices" -- so
what happens after these companies pay these fines? They just jack up
the price for something else to make up for the lost income?
And what does "inflated prices" mean anyway? Is there some rule or
law that determines what these robbers can charge for their products?
.
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