Re: when Jesus became God?

David Bowie wrote:
rasqual wrote:

Actually, i thought that the argument between us, historically, was
whether the necessary/contingent disinction has any meaning ITMSOT. IMO
anything we've argued about since then has actually simply been an
extension of that

How so? What hath the law of non-contradiction to do with modal logic,
David?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modal_logic

Please note the second, brief paragraph under Epistemic Logic.

--you're arguing for classical mainstream Xian
terminology and definitions,

Since when is modal logic the provincial territory of any faith at
all?

and i'm arguing that Mormonism requires a
(largely) completely separate set of terminology and definitions.

Actually, you've been asserting that, not arguing it.

It might be fun to see whether Mormonism or linguistics is more
normative in your world view.
http://www.indiana.edu/~iulg/moss/linguistics.pdf (a paper on the
applicability of modal logic in linguistics)

Blake Ostler, among other LdS, seems comfortable enough with modal
logic that he doesn't need to bracket his faith in using it; to the
contrary:
http://www.fairlds.org/New_Mormon_Challenge/TNMC02.html

I think you're relatively alone on this, David. You're welcome to cite
some other LdS who have explained this. I can't find even one.
Although it's possible that you've struck on something important, the
fact that you haven't really explained just how modal logic is
incompatible with Mormonism suggests this is more a hunch you haven't
thought through, than some articulate theory with merit.

- S

.

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