Re: LDS Church in Sweden, etc.

gfuller1930_not_@xxxxxxxxxxxxx (Gene=A0Fuller) wrote in part: <<But the
only thing really required is that there was a sufficient apostacy that
God took His authority to act in His name from the earth.>>

But does a loss or absence of priesthood actually mean an ignorance of
or a loss of purity of doctrine?

One can still rightly believe even though one might not have the
authority to perform certain ordinances?

>>From an LDS pov the veraties of the faith still exist like JS being a
prophet and the BoM being true though an absence of priesthood?

A Catholic example would be from Japan. The faith was preached there in
the 16th century but TPTB banned priests. But then 300 years later when
Catholics returned it was discovered the people had kept the faith alive
over many generations.

In the 19th century Christians of all sects were allowed back into Japan
but these underground Catholics knew which were the Catholics. Like
Catholic "ministers" didn't marry like others did. Etc.

.

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