Hadeeth and other literature
- From: "abu_abdulrahman2002@xxxxxxxxx" <abu_abdulrahman2002@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 24 Mar 2006 22:24:34 -0600
Asslamualaikum
Brother Saifullah said :In Islamic literature,the disclosure of
sources
is akin to the law of witnesses. The witnessesare examined according
to
their moral uprightness and chronology. If one applies this
methodology
to Biblical literature, not a single sentence could be proven to be
authentic due to the absence of disclosure with regard to the source
of
information.
My question to the brother is that what if we were to apply this
methodology on the Vespasian quote below? If hadeeth analysis were to
be used on the vesapian quote below then would the incident of
Vespasian curing a blind man become saheeh?
Quote:
According to Tacitus, Vespasian cured a blind man by putting spittle
on
his eyes:
At Alexandria a commoner, whose eyes were well known to have wasted
away ...fell at Vespasian's feet demanding with sobs a cure for his
blindness, and imploring that the Emperor would deign to moisten his
eyes and eyeballs with the spittle from his mouth.
... Vespasian .... did as the men desired him. Immediately the hand
recovered its functions and daylight shone once more in the blind
man's
eyes. Those who were present still attest both miracles today, when
there is nothing to gain by lying.-- The Annals of Imperial Rome, 4.81
Tacitus is considered by many to be one of the best if not the best
ancient historian. He catologued his sources (sometimes), compared
different accounts, and kept a sceptical eye towards many different
facets of history. We know much about him from his works and what
others wrote of him, and we have other works he did besides the
Annals.
His passage about Jesus is utilized by Christian apologists all the
time to prove the existance of Jesus
John says that Jesus cured ablind man by putting spittle on his eyes:
Quote:
1 And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his
birth....
6 When he had thus spoken, he spat on the ground, and made clay of the
spittle, and he anointed the eyes of the blind man with the clay,
7 And said unto him, Go, wash in the pool of Siloam, (which is by
interpretation, Sent.) He went his way therefore, and washed, and came
seeing.--John 9:1,6,7
We know virtually nothing about John, not even if the name attatched to
the gospel was his actual name. We know of no other works definitvly
written by him, who he wrote the gospel for, or anyone else who knew
he
was writing at the time. We know he could play fast and loose with the
facts, and his account of the events of Jesus' life differs widely
from
that of the synoptics.
Why should I spurn the "eyewitness testimony" of the historian Tacitus
on the curing of the blind man by Vespasian, but believe GJohn on the
curing of the blind man by Jesus?
end quote
source :http://www.iidb.org/vbb/forumdisplay.php?f=60
.
- Prev by Date: Re: Islamic Justice: Blood-money
- Next by Date: Re: Are Christians "Unbelievers" according to the Quran?
- Previous by thread: Are posts to this group more likely to be blocked thatn posts to other groups?
- Next by thread: Time's Radiation: Tafsir [76:1-3]
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|
