Re: Why the literalist intepretation of the Bible is wrong

"Matthew Johnson" <matthew_member@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:AUWki.4736$CJ4.4409@xxxxxxxxxxx
In article <dSBki.838$mS3.245@trnddc03>, George says...

...
And how does a law (biblical or otherwise) regulate something without
supporting it?

Laws do this all the time. Why are you acting so surprised?

You didn't answer my question.

First of all, it was a stupid question. More important, I _did_ answer
it, just
a few lines further down.

Does the 1st amendment to the constitution support freedom of religion and
freedom of speech, or not? It wasn't a stupid question. Obviously, you
are afraid to answer it, or else are unable to do so. It's ok to say "I
don't know".

The _real_ historical fact, which YOU keep denying, is that it was the
change in society due to _economics_ that made the abolition of
slavery possible. Until then, all pre-industrial societies had some
form of slavery. Even Britain only abolished slavery only after the
_lost_ all their slave-holding colonies to rebellions (such as the one
we just celebrated this 4th of July).

And if your Jesus had simply proclaimed that slavery was wrong, would
that
have stopped it sooner? Would it have had any effect? I think it would
have. So, if he was such a moral man, why did he encourage it by telling
slave owners how to punish their slaves?

Your question is illegitimate. You are presuming what is clearly contrary
to
fact. He did _NOT_ encourage it. You are _still_ ignoring the historial
facts.

[snip]

If Jesus tells slave owners how they are to dole out punishment to slaves,
he is certainly not condemning it. The historic facts are the slavery was
rampant during Biblical times. The historic facts is that none of you holy
men did anything to stop the practice, and in fact, wrote laws that
perpetuated it. Those are the facts.

George


.

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