Re: Help with Septuagint and Vulgate to Isaiah 42:5
- From: Matthew Johnson <matthew_member@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 24 Aug 2006 00:55:46 GMT
In article <pZPGg.14743$Te.7317@trnddc07>, gilgames says...
<<
For it really does
not make sense to talk about any given tense of the Latin language as being
'present' and 'imperfect' at the same time.
Imperfect was in that grammar (since is the Latin there is no
progressive) whatever is not perfect. The perfect means 'finished' (from
perficio). Do you really think that in the present all events are
'finished' = 'already done'?
Of course not. But the tense system of Latin does NOT divide all verbs into
'perfect' and 'imperfect' (the way Hebrew and Russian do). Rather, it classifies
all verbs in terms of mood, tense and voice. The tenses are perfect, pluperfect,
imperfect, perfect, future and future perfect (rare). These tenses are mutually
exclusive. So it is NOT possible to be 'present' and 'imperfect' at the same
time.
Again, see Perseus to see that I am not making this up. The grammar book you
used relies on a strangely non-standard classification of tenses.
--
-------------------------------
Subducat se sibi ut haereat Deo
Quidquid boni habet tribuat illi a quo factus est
(Sanctus Aurelius Augustinus, Ser. 96)
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