Re: What was the SINGLE best Jesus prophesy?
- From: Matthew Johnson <matthew_member@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 27 Jun 2005 01:57:37 GMT
In article <_7Lue.9763$Uj.3638@trnddc08>, stu@xxxxxxxxxx says...
>
>Dave,
>
>Quoting fromyou:
You are not going to make any friends in this NG by ignoring Usenet quotation
standards like this. No one will respect your argument, either.
[snip]
>
>The Named Servant in Isaiah chapters 41-54 is Israel:
This may be news to you, but many of us in this NG have known this for years.
And after thinking about it for all these years, we have NOT come to the same
rash conclusion you do.
Indeed: even many great Jewish Bible scholars, such as Nahum Sarna, are quick to
admit -- unlike you -- that it is NOT AT ALL CLEAR who this "suffering servant"
is. Why, some will even say that the traditional Jewish argument (that the
servant is Israel) is about as weak as the traditional Christian argument.
SO why don't you show this same balance in your view?
[snip]
>Singular and plural used (53:8-9)
Again, those of us who have thought about this for years are aware of something
you missed here: there is a TEXTUAL PROBLEM here. The text Christians
traditionally followed for the first 14 centuries has ONLY SINGULARS here!
And no, the Jewish text does NOT have a superior claim to be original here: for
the textual difference is amazingly small, when analyzed in term of pen strokes
in the Hebrew.
Besides: as Keil and Delitzsch explain, the plural could by a "plural of
exaggeration", used to emphasize the drawn out painful nature of His death.
[snip]
--
---------------------------
Subducat se sibi ut haereat Deo
quidquid boni habet, tribuat illi a quo factus est.
(St. Augustine, Ser. 96)
.
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