Re: The 2nd Atomic Bomb



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David H Thornley <david@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:


I suspect because of the difficulty in defining it; as an example,
an attempt to destroy all the (eg) Sioux would be a genocide, though
that is not (necessarily) an attempt to destroy all Indians. An attempt
to destroy all Sioux living in a particular area would be an attempted
genocide, though that would not (necessarily) be an attempt to destroy
all Sioux.

Still, something about "intent" should be injected in there somewhere.

But there is! The definition uses the very word: "In the present Convention,
genocide means any of the following acts committed with the **intent** to
destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial, or religious
group...".

In short, one shouldn't read only the "in whole or in part" statement, and
conclude that killing a few [whatever] means genocide because they are a
part of their group. One should wonder whether the killing, maybe even the
mass killing, is, well, _intended_ for the destruction, whole or partial, of
a group. For instance, when one bombs a city to destroy its industrial
output, he will surely kill lots of unlucky members of a group, but the
destruction of the group, even only in part, is not the intent, so this is
not genocide.

That the Allies bombed Axis cities with an intent different from the
complete or partial destruction of groups, is easily demonstrated by the
fact that once the city was occupied by Allied forces, the wholesale killing
stopped. On the contrary, once the Germans occupied Warsaw after having
bombed it, it's only then that they begun the serious killing of the groups
they disliked. Whence their genocidal intention is demonstrated.

.



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