Re: Appeasement (was: Chamberlain's role in Norway debacle)



Dave Smith wrote:

Article 4 of the Locarno Pact looks to me like an alliance, since it calls
for contracting members to come to the aid of another is invaded in an
unprovoked violation of the Treaty of Versailles.

Actually, it calls for contracting members to bring the matter to the
attention of the League of Nations then, if all else fails, there is
the possibility that military action be taken.

Please quote the part where Britain has an obligation to send troops
in case Germany remilitarizes Rhineland, or drop the claim.

2. If "the Allies" refers to the powers that would end up on the
Allied side during WWII, then the majority did not support
appeasement.

Ok. They were Etente and then they were Allies. Remove the capital....
they were allies.

The point is that the WWI anti-German alliance broke up after that
war.

So in the 1936-38 period, there no longer were any allies. The WWI
alliance had disappeared, and the WWII one had yet to be formed.

Ah yes... I had forgotten about the preceding centuries of economic,
military and colonial co-operation and the natural tendency of the France
to automatically defer to the British.

There is no such thing as natural tendencies for countries.

Rather than gloss over the issue and exposing your lack of knowledge
of history, why don't you just accept the claim or refute it - if you
can, which I doubt you will be able to -?

In the period leading up to WWII, France tied itself up to Britain.
That is fact.

Britain had centuries of economic, military and colonial rivalry with
the US and yet looked to that country for leadership as well during
WWII.

No. It neglects Stalin, whose little deal to split up Poland enabled or
emboldened Hitler.

Check the chronology.

At the time of Munich, the deal was one year in the future and Stalin
had a deal to come to the help of the Czechs if the French did it,
too.

That, again, is fact.


LC

.



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