Re: Why have a Holy Roman Empire?

On 19/06/2010 22:00, erilar wrote:
In article<E88Tn.37612$Ha1.31454@hurricane>,
John Briggs<john.briggs4@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

So why then is "manorial system" (or some such) employed as the standard
translation for "Grundherrschaft"? And why should "Grundherrschaft" not
also describe the "UK [sic] system" if it is such an innocuous term?

Because it's not a literal translation.

What isn't? Which of my questions are you answering?

A literal [I think we need another term - it's not the letters that are the problem, but the words that make up the German portmanteau word...] translation wouldn't be correct either, as the German term definitely means more than that, even if the meaning seems to have been skilfully changed in recent years...
John Briggs