Re: Why Don't the Welsh Speak Latin?
- From: Weland <giles@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 03 Jun 2010 01:17:27 -0500
John Briggs wrote:
On 02/06/2010 18:07, Pete Barrett wrote:On Tue, 01 Jun 2010 12:59:42 +0100, John Briggs
<john.briggs4@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Why should it be an embarrassment? The settling of British people in
Armorica could surely have happened independently of Anglo-Saxon
invasions, if any? Indeed, the legends say that the first wave of
settlement was by British soldiers of Macsen Wledig (Magnus Maximus),
which would be *before* any possible Anglo-Saxon incursions into Great
Britain.
Would it?
How early are you putting Anglo-Saxon invasions? Magnus Maximus died
in the late 4th century. I would have thought that the Anglo-Saxons
could hardly have arrived in Britain in numb ers enough to displace
the native population (if they ever did) before the mid 5th century.
This is what Wkipedia says:
<quote>
It has long been held that the Anglo-Saxons migrated to Britain in
large numbers in the fifth and sixth centuries, substantially
displacing the British people. The Anglo-Saxon historian Frank Stenton
in 1943, although making considerable allowance for British survival,
essentially sums up this view, arguing "that the greater part of
southern England was overrun in the first phase of the war".
<end quote>
I've never heard anyone suggest they arrrived in large numbers before
400. Bede dates the first invitation to ca. 450. What dates are you
thinking of?
I'm not thinking of any dates: I'm just pointing out that a mass emigration of Brythonic-speakers and a mass immigration of English-speakers must be related in some way, regardless of the order of the events.
Except that there is no *must* about it. And that could be because you're not thinking about dates.
.
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