Re: Reply to Renia, BlackBeard, Skelton, Crowell, Nilita



On Nov 6, 2:03 pm, erilar <dra...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
In article <f166h4dh2hbgt3joaomtaur0ubgr7dv...@xxxxxxx>,
James Hogg <Jas.Hogg...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

So what is *formally* a present tense can actually be used refer
to the future (I fly to London early tomorrow) or the past (A man
walks into a bar -- and countless other stories told in the
'historic present'). But morphologically it's still the present
tense.

At least, that's what I used to think. Now Fred has convinced me
that I was wrong, along with every linguist before me.

Cutting half a dozen irrelevant cross-posted groups may have cut off the
participants in this argument, but as a philologist with considerable
background in assorted Germanic languages(starting with English), I need
to point out that what is stated in the first paragraph above is
entirely correct.

Fred is, to put it mildly, badly mistaken if he makes claims to the
contrary.


Don't tell me NoGall is the cause of this rumpus.

Why would anyone take a NoGall claim as a matter of legitimate
dispute, given his well-documented history of climbing Usenet's ladder
of success wrong by wrong?
.



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