JStupid gets beaten up by his own strawman again



JTEM wrote:
This is a serious post, though it's doubtful anyone
but me is capable of handling a serious post...

Oh, the irony.....

I said:

: We know how to pronounce the transliterations.

Indeed, except *you* don't seem to know how, since you took "Jehuda" as sounding the same as "djehuti".... the "j" of "jehuda" is a y sound, not a j whereas "djehuti" is a "dj" sound, the "d" is a "d" and "t" is a t, and while there is only voicing to generally differentiate them, both languages do so differentiate. Its like saying "do" and "to" in modern English sound the same and so are the same.


Larry/Weland replied:

: : Except the transliterations are based on our
: : understanding of the phonology of the languages
: : they represent...

So the transliterations are based on how we believe the
ancient words sounded...

: : or that if we don't know how to pronounce the original
: : languages, then any transliteration is false,

If we're wrong about the way the ancient language sounded,
then the transliteration is wrong. conversely, if we're right
about the way an ancient language sounded, we got the
transliterations correct.

But what is he talking about?

The subject was the Egyptian Djehuti and how it's a phonetic
dead ringer to the "Jehuti" identified as Judea in ancient texts.

Not quite, the subject was how you misapplied phonetic values to concoct a homophonic relationship between two different words from two different languages while at the same time out of the other side of your mouth say saying that we didn't know how these were pronounced. You got the phonetic values wrong, you got the names misapplied, and

Oh: And he's saying that the transliterations DO NOT match
the sound of the ancient words,

No, that's not what I said. What I said was that you got it wrong because, as usual, you don't the first thing of what you're talking about. Jehuda (not Jehuti)= Yehuda in English.

In fact, they were pronounced
completely differently. He and Egoblaze say this.

Neither one of us said this. What we said is that Jehuda was pronounced differently from what you said it was, making your comparison to Egyptian "Djehuti" a false one.

Which, he now says makes them FALSE transliterations.

Also never said this.

Because, as you read, the transliterations are based on the
phonology of the ancient words... and not... depending on
what he needs to be true in order to conclude that I am wrong.

Or you mean to invent things I've said so you can twist the situation to fit whatever it is you need this week.


And so once again JStupid is caught misciting, misquoting, and creating straw man arguments.
.


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