Re: I wish I were JTEM
- From: Weland <giles@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 31 Jul 2009 10:46:15 -0500
JTEM wrote:
Weland <gi...@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
You pretended that the pronunciation of ancient
Egyptian is known.
A great deal is known.
And some of what is thought to be known is wrong.
Based on your detailed ignorance of the language and dependence on web pages written by amateurs in ancient Egyptology.....yes, that inspires confidence it does.
Heck, all of it may be at least a little wrong.
We just don't "Know."
Well, *you* don't know.
On the other hand, you claimed that we know how to
pronounce two transliterated words from two different
languages
We do. We know how to pronounce the transliterations.
Except the transliterations are based on our understanding of the phonology of the languages they represent...apparently that didn't occur to you, or that if we don't know how to pronounce the original languages, then any transliteration is false, and one can't then claim that two transliterations from two different languages would sound alike much less that they'd sound alike in their original languages and have anything to do with one another....another fact that didn't occur to JStupid Bates and his fecal mind.
And they were phonetically identical. Exactly identical.
No they weren't, and you were corrected on the point. And you've fulminated and thrown up lots of dust ever since to cover your ignorance.
But the connections didn't stop there. We have other
locations (Ammon Jordan) named for an Egyptian god,
not to mention what would have to be the amazing
coincidence of the Babylonian-era story of "Abraham"
and the city of Ur.
HA! Pop-folklore and pop-etymology! Hilarious! What's your evidence for this skein of associations?
Are you claiming that an Egyptian name for land that
had been controlled by Egypt for so very long is
somehow strange?
What's your evidence that the Egyptians called the area around the site of Amman "Amman?"
and when corrected, switched your argument to saying
no one knows how they were pronounced,
You've got it ass backwards, as per our usual.
1)
The transliterations ARE phonetically identical. This much
is a fact.
No, they aren't, as was pointed out to you.
2)
YOU and Egoblaze claimed that these exactly-matching
transliterations couldn't be the same, because the original
words were pronounced differently.
They are.
Two SEPARATE issues here. The first is how the'
/transliterations/ are pronounced,
which can only be based on knowledge of how to pronounce the original, hence the transliteration.
.
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