Re: Was the hebrew bible written by Romans?
- From: imipak <imipak@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 4 May 2009 11:38:50 -0700 (PDT)
On May 4, 4:25 am, Matt Giwer <jul...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Martin Edwards wrote:
Matt Giwer wrote:
Weland wrote:As I have pointed out before, Abegg et al say that some of the DSS are
Inabón Yunes wrote:The version in Hebrew does not appear in history until the 2nd c.
Find any text about the Old Testament written in other letters thanSo you don't know about texts written in Hebrew?
Greek (used by the Romans in the beggining) or Latin (Roman letters)
So, if you can't find any scripture written about the bible in other
letters than the ones used by the Romans, then, it was them
iy
AD. From the DSS we can say they were around in the last 1st c. AD.
There is nothing to identify the Hebrew translation as any older than
that except by divining the way in which the translations were made. I
have a distaste for divination.
in Hebrew. Face it, neither of us know whether they are telling the
truth. They are, though, reputable academics and not bible bashers.
Of course we do not know because there is no physical evidence. I freely say
that all I know is when these things appear in history. We know Hebrew first
appears, not in history, but in a late 1940s find dated to the fist c. AD.. We
know also the DSS is not the oldest example of the Aramaic script used in them.
However my divination assertion was to the claim that the Greek has to be a
translation of Hebrew because of the forms used in Greek. There are two simple
explanations for that. The first is what I have said that local Aramaic
speakers were creating stories in Greek for their Greek Emperor. The other is
that some translators were working from texts in "hebrew" to create a Greek
translation.
I cannot think of any way to establish which was the method. The bible
believers KNOW it was a translation from a Hebrew text. How they know they
will never explain.
As to being in Hebrew we still have the fact that when Judeans, aka Jews,
first appear in history they are speaking Aramaic. We have no evidence Hebrew
was ever a spoken language. That is why I say there is no evidence it was ever
more than a liturgical language.
Now maybe some backwards group did speak Hebrew. That is a maybe but if we
can find them we will learn something. Maybe they were the Maccabes. Did
anyone ever tell you that the president/dictator of Syria is a member of a
minority group with its own dialect that has produced the traditional rulers
of Syria for a thousand years or so? Such a strange thing in modern times.. Why
is it strange over 2000 years ago?
--
Anti-semitic acts in Europe are no where near the anti-goyim
acts in Israel and are not government inspired.
-- The Iron Webmaster, 4126
http://www.giwersworld.org/palestine/answers.phtmla9
Mon May 4 07:08:17 EDT 2009
You appear to assert everything as a result of your own personal
divination, rather than by the facts on the ground. I'm glad you have
finally admitted to this.
.
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