Re: Ancient Rome

On Mar 16, 1:11 am, "Agamemnon" <agamem...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"Martin Edwards" <big_mart...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message

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Agamemnon wrote:

"imipak" <imi...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
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On Mar 14, 3:00 am, "Agamemnon" <agamem...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"Martin Edwards" <big_mart...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message

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Agamemnon wrote:

"Martin Edwards" <big_mart...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
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imipak wrote:
On Mar 12, 2:22 am, "Agamemnon" <agamem...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"Martin Edwards" <big_mart...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message

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Agamemnon wrote:
"imipak" <imi...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
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On Mar 11, 5:43 pm, razvan_moroi...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
Hmm yes thanks for the info
Though I am curios is there any real evidence that would link
the
starting Romans to the Trojans? or well since we are not even
shure
if
the Trojan war did happen , evidence linking the Romans to the
greeks ?
As for their decline , ye it hapened when the emperors spent
their
armies fighting betwen themselves for who got the seat of
power .
<<<The Romans formed independently of the Greeks. Their earliest
developments in writing were imported via the Etruscans. The
concept
of a Senate and the Republic were taken from the Greeks - I'm
unsure
if this was by conquest or by trade - they traded mostly with
the
Etruscans but the Etruscans traded with the Greeks and that
trade
included technical and social skills.
On the other hand, the Etruscan language has not yet been
deciphered,
There is no such thing as the Etruscan language and there were
no >>>>> such
things as Etruscans. Latin writers refer to no such entities. What
exactly
are you referring to?

The people the early Roman historians call the Etruscii, obviously.
Duh. Oh, and since the Latin writers did indeed refer to them, we
can
take it from this you are wholly ignorant of what the Roman >>>>
historians
wrote.

Also there is plenty of Etruscan writing extant, but is has not been

No there isn't. If it can't be deciphered then how can you know what
language it is?

deciphered. Of course it is just possible that it was Latin in a
different script, but this is where the plausibility rule takes
over.

The most likely possibility is that it is Latin in a different
script >> or
Greek or Carian in a different script, or it could even be German.
There
is no such thing as an Etruscan language.

It could be English. Of course English did not exist yet, but that
kind
of consideration has never stopped you.

English is an impure composite language that did not exist until the
middle
ages and therefore it cannot be considered as a candidate.

<<<There are no "pure" languages. They are all corruptions of something
that came before, merely adding words as new technologies came along.
Greek is nothing more than a corruption of proto-Indo-European, and
Greeks nothing more than mutated pre-Indo-Europeans. Fancy that,
you're a mutant.>>>

Proto-Indo-European isn't a real language.

Nobody, *nobody*, thinks that it is a language of which there are extant
examples.  It is a hypothesis based on Vedic, Avestan and Bronze Age
Greek.  Every real linguist knows this.  As for alleged professors in
Greece, they are a laughing stock everywhere else.

Rubbish. Everyone knows that modern linguistics is not based on science but
on Nazi and Communist racist propaganda. Scientists from Greece, Spain,
Italy, France and other non Slavic and non-Germanic countries do not accept
a word of it. They know perfectly well that 90% of all indo-European words
came from Greek and Latin and that ancient Greek was pronounced in exactly
the same way as modern Greek and Latin was pronounced in exactly the same
way as Italian. Language was speared through writing and through trade.
Those that first invented something gave it its name and that name speared
to the people they traded it with. The numbers didn't come from any PIE.
They came from the people who first invented them for trade and were first
used in Greece and Asia Minor. When these and the names of domesticated
animals are removed, whose names came from the people that first
domesticated them, what does that leave PIE with? Nothing.

"Everyone" meaning you, the same as all the other times you use the
word. I observe than when asked to explain who this "everyone" is, you
never say, just giving vague, sweeping statements. When asked for
examples, citations, references, you give nothing except maybe the
occasional unreferenced urban legend. Ok, you did once give a name,
but without saying what claims that particular name referred to, or
even sufficient information to identify who the person in question
actually was. In short, you have offered nothing.

Ok, so in addition to your claim that all modern (as in the past 300
years) historians have conspired to hide your idea of what real
history is, you now assert that all modern (as in the past 100 years)
linguists and philologists (as linguists actually have no domain on
the history of linguistics, that is the sole province of philology)
have conspired to hide the origins of language. You have offered no
proof that either of these conspiracies exist, but insist on using
loaded words (such as Nazi and Communist) in a blatant attempt to
manipulate people emotionally rather than by intellectual argument.
All evidence supports the notion that you are merely abusing the
sciences in a vain attempt to re-write reality in your image. That is
by far the simplest explanation of the data available and is no
simpler. It is thus the most likely to be correct.
.

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