Re: possible Skipwith maternity of Elizabeth (Dale) Rogers

In article
<26a3ae58-695d-4232-9239-c4884053a854@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
"Peter W. Pesterhaus III" <binky9@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

Edward Dale most certainly had an earlier wife.

I actually do not agree that this is 'most certain'; but see below.

Apparently you
didn't understand what I said elsewhere: At this specific time, first
time brides were not permitted to have pre-nuptial agreements giving
them the right to manage their own property. When they married, their
property became the property of their husbands. How could they have
an estate when they didn't have an estate? So you can see that your
notion that Edward Dale's first wife would have had an intestate
estate is ridiculous.

At this time, only widows were permitted pre-nuptial agreements.
Where does Edward Dale ever mention a pre-nuptial agreement?

There is no evidence to show whether Edward Dale's hypothetical first
wife was or was not a widow before she married Dale. The fact that you
know of no surviving pre-nuptial agreement for such a marriage does not
prove that this wife, if she existed, was a first-time bride.

Who the hell are you to tell anybody who has the right to write what

Jeff, I have offered you advice because you so obviously need it. Of
course you needn't take it.

Nat Taylor
a genealogist's sketchbook:
http://www.nltaylor.net/sketchbook/
.