Re: Moral equivalence

Steve Goldfarb wrote:
In <jfue85poavpcflm6qqcd1ddg50ihlcu38o@xxxxxxx> mm <NOPSAMmm2005@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes:

Shelly, I haven't finished a post where I agree with a lot you say,
but I think here you're arguing against your own position. One big
difference is that no Jew hopes or works for this about any other
country than Israel. Muslims who want it want it for the whole world.

So, crazy hypothetical - let's say in a move similar to that of Monsey a community of Jews decide to move to some small country, some island in the Caribbean say, and over time they become a majority there. So now you've got a country which is not Israel but has a substantial or even majority Jewish population. Are you saying that since that country isn't Israel, the Jews there would not support having a halachic government?

The Muslims are saying Muslim countries ought to be run under Sharia, and the O Jews (or some of them anyway) are saying that Jewish countries ought to be run under Halacha. What's the difference, there, other than the fact that there are more Muslim countries than Jewish countries?

--s


The difference is that Islam demands that EVERY country be run under Sharia whether it is a "Muslim country" or not. Judaism has no equivalent imperative.

chsw
.

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