Re: Question on marriage and conversion


"Harry Weiss" <hjweiss@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:ed4skm$ivc$1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
cindys <cstein1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

"Don Levey" <Don_SCJM@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
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snip
A thought experiment:
A couple seeking a get would be attesting that there was a marriage,
and thus one would be (potentially) be grantable. On the other hand,
one not seeking a get would be an admission that there was no kosher
marriage, and thus one would not be necessary. That is, seeking a get
would in and of itself necessitate one.

I have no idea how this would relate, if at all, to halacha. But it
seems, to me, to be an interesting way of accommodating possible
questions.
----------
It doesn't matter. It's not based on the couple's perception. I
personally
know of a couple who had been married Conservative. They subsequently
divorced, and the wife approached an O *rebbetzin* (rabbi's wife) to ask
if
she needed a get and the answer was no. At the time, that didn't sound
right
to me, (and it was obviously inappropriate to approach the rebbetzin
rather
than the rabbi), so I offered to ask a completely different O rabbi the
same
question. I did, and I got the same answer (that the woman didn't
require a
get). The explanation I was subsequently given is the one I posted here
(and
snipped for brevity). CYLRA.
Best regards,
---Cindy S.

I am very surprised by your answer. Reb Moshe gave an answer saying a non
O wedding
was invalid for the purpose of saying the children of a marriage after
such a divorce
with out a get were not mamzerim. In the case of questions of mamzerim
it is
customary to look for any possible kula.

I'm not sure what you mean. Do you mean Reb Moshe ruled that the only
situation where non-O weddings would be considered invalid was to avoid
labeling offspring mamzerim? But that in a situation where mamzerus was not
an issue, the wedding was valid? How could that be? How could it be argued
that a marrage is valid without a valid ketuba and without kosher witnesses?


Many Rabbis disagreed with Reb Moshe even on that case. But, I don't know
of a
single posek that says that couple with a non O marriage who divorce do
not need a
get, leChatichila.

And what about the couple that has a civil ceremony? Or the couple that is
cohabitating without a ceremony?

(the above is if both of the couple were Jewish, obviously if one was not
Jewish, no
get would ever be required.)

I wrote according to a situation I knew of personally and what had been
explained to me by my LOR. That's why I wrote CYLRA.
Best regards,
---Cindy S.

.

Relevant Pages

  • Re: Question on marriage and conversion
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    ... A couple seeking a get would be attesting that there was a marriage, ... than the rabbi), so I offered to ask a completely different O rabbi the same ... Embarrassment isn't a function of the halacha. ...
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  • Re: Question on marriage and conversion
    ... A couple seeking a get would be attesting that there was a marriage, ... than the rabbi), so I offered to ask a completely different O rabbi the same ... was invalid for the purpose of saying the children of a marriage after such a divorce ...
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