Re: Question on marriage and conversion
- From: kamlet@xxxxxxxxx (Arthur Kamlet)
- Date: Wed, 30 Aug 2006 20:31:44 +0000 (UTC)
In article <CAlJg.14$xV.4@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
cindys <cstein1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
The Orthodox generally do not consider non-O marriages to be halachically
valid.
The proof is that if the marriage splits up, and they are asked to
pasken (make a halachic ruling) regarding whether or not a get is required,
the answer is generally no. The reason for taking this approach (as I
understand) is that most/many non-O Jews are not going to seek a get ...
The Rabbinical Assembly -- sort of a C rabbi's union -- has adopted
a very few Standards of Practice. A standard of practice, if
violated, gets the rabbi kicked out of the RA and so is taken very
seriously. One standard is to never perform a marriage where at
least one of the couple has been divorced and she did not receive
or he did not grant a get.
--
__
Art Kamlet ArtKamlet @ AOL.com Columbus OH K2PZH
.
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