Re: Conservative Patrilineal Descent
- From: backon@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Thu, 16 Mar 2006 18:32:14 +0000 (UTC)
In article <%fgSf.3568$Mj.1582@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, "cindys" <cstein1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
"Don Levey" <Don_SCJM@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:m3ek124cdl.fsf@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
"cindys" <cstein1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:of
"Joel Shurkin" <shurkin@xxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:shurkin-B200E8.08240616032006@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
We have had in the last few days at least two-------------------
posters, Josh and Lisa, assure everyone that those of us who are not
Orthodox in practice or who intermarry are considered no longer Jews.
Did they actually say this or is this the regular bimonthly rehashment
arethe same old canard: "O Jews do not consider non-O Jews to be Jewish."
(which is the usual misrepresentation of the sentiment that non-O Jews
toJewish, but that the religion they are practicing is not Judaism, which
(while C and Rs may find this statement offensive) still does not equate
---------------saying that non-O Jews are not Jewish.)Josh did specifically post that those who intermarry have the
halachic status of gentiles.
Whether or not this equates to Joel's statement above is, of course,
left as an exercise to the reader.
Peyrush Cindy: I don't believe that it does. I believe what Josh's
statement means is that an intermarried person is no longer eligible to
perform certain mitzvos, (for example, maybe such a person cannot be called
to the torah for an aliyah, just as a gentile cannot). Having *the halachic
status of being a gentile* is not the same as *being a gentile*.
OBVIOUSLY!! The person still remains Jewish; it's just that he can't
make a minyan, his shechita would be invalid, etc.
(And before anyone starts calling me *antisemitic* for supposedly having
expressed my personal opinion, I wish to clarify that I am merely explaining
what I think Josh's statement means, NOT expressing any sort of a personal
opinion one way or the other.)
Josh
Best regards,.
---Cindy S.
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