Re: Probability question

Bill Howells wrote:
Very interesting. And it works! Bigw could really impress his/her
teacher by creating an F random variable from the Binomial random
variable with the following transformation (notation defined above):

Fvar = (k+1)*(1-p)/(p*(n-k));

and numerator and denominator df = 2*(n-k), 2*(k+1)

To get the probability for exactly 3 events, subtract off the
corresponding F variable with k=2. Nice work Professor Reef Fish!

As an aside, my probability teacher was very anti-computing. Said
those machines scared him.


When k=n, things break down (division by 0 when computing Fvar, and df=0). But in that case, the cumulative probability is know to be 1 anyway, so can just be filled in directly.

--
Bruce Weaver
bweaver@xxxxxxxxxxxx
www.angelfire.com/wv/bwhomedir
.

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