Re: Ordinal-Interval Correlation

If Ray will excuse me for a brief digression. Concerning this part of
Rich's abstract:

It is assumed that a normal random variable (L) underlies the artificially
dichotomized variable.

However, in addition, Pearson's biserial nu invokes the assumption that the marginal
distribution of L is normal, which contradicts its basic assumptions

I don't understand the second statement. What's meant by the normal
"marginal distribution" here, and how is this different from the
reference to normality in the first statement?

Again, sorry for the digression--a practice I generally try to avoid.

--
John Uebersax PhD

.

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