Re: Analysing baseline and follow-up measurements
- From: Frank E Harrell Jr <f.harrell@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 21 Oct 2005 10:22:06 -0500
Richard Ulrich wrote:
On 20 Oct 2005 00:03:26 -0700, andrea.meyer@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
Hello everybody
In a recent statistical note, Vickers & Altman (British Medical
Journal, January 2005) have shown that in randomised trials where for
example two treatment outcomes are compared, the ANCOVA aproach using
the baseline score of the outcome as covariate is superior to analysing
either change scores (i.e. outcome minus baseline score) or simply
outcomes ignoring baseline scores. If, however, the focus is not only
on comparing two treatments at follow-up but at the same time on
testing for changes between baseline and follow-up (and also whether
thes changes vary across treatments, i.e. time x treatment interaction)
the ANCOVA approach obviously does not address the right question it
does not analyse changes.
This final statement is implicitly wrong. Under assumptions of the model, and with randomization
(so the PRE's are the same), the "regressed change" analyzed
by the ANCOVA is "change" without a certain amount of noise. Thus, it *is* an analysis of change, and it is the preferred one.
To reinforce what Rich said, in a parallel group design, the primary contrast is the between-grouop comparison. Keep it simple. Get the estimate of the parallel group treatment effect, adjusted for baseline. Changes within group are irrelevant - they have secular trend effects, natural history of disease effects, etc. I'm assuming there is only one follow-up measurement.
Frank Harrell
When the groups differ at PRE, nothing is as simple.
My question is whether the same ANCOVA approach would work if instead of taking follow-up scores as dependent variable we simply chose change scores. The so obtained model has change scores (outcome minus baseline score) as dependent and treatment and baseline score both as independent variables in the model. The baseline score is only used to correct for baseline differences between treatments. This model leads to exactly the same results for the treatment and the treatment x time interaction as the ANCOVA model
- Perhaps I am misunderstanding something. If PRE is the
covariate, with POST as the outcome, I see TREATMENT as measuring what was tested as TR x Time in the repeated measures; I do not see any separate interaction in the ANCOVA.
suggested by Vikers and Altman but has the advantage of focussing on temporal changes rather than singe points in time. I wonder what others think of this approach and whether e.g. the fact that the baseline scores are necessarily correlated with the outcomes (changes scores) would lead to problems (i.e. inflated correlation)? Any suggestion s are welcome.
Bruce responded to this.
.
- References:
- Analysing baseline and follow-up measurements
- From: andrea . meyer
- Re: Analysing baseline and follow-up measurements
- From: Richard Ulrich
- Analysing baseline and follow-up measurements
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