Re: Hyperopia plus amblyopia

I would tend to disagree with this treatment. At 20/200, there is little
stimulus for accommodation. Leaving the amblyopic eye 3.5 D underplussed is
leaving it still very blurry, not sharp on the retina. Why leave it blurry,
when the eye wants a sharp image to use, and likely won't accommodate the
additional 3.5 D ?

I would use the full cycloplegic for each, eye, cutting both the same,
perhaps 0.5 to 0.75 D less than the full plus. Only then is the eye-to-eye
difference fully accounted for, and close enough to "sharp" focus to get the
best from the patching. I don't understand the rational for going slightly
more than half of the total - I have never done that.

I also would not back off the patching until I saw the results I was looking
for. If there is no change while full-time patching, reducing it to 5-6 hrs.
just wastes additional time, in my opinion.

I've been treating amblyopia for over 25 years, so I speak from experience.

I have no ideea. I highly apreciate your reply, I am just trying to
understand everything. Anyway, I have three separate opinions of
doctors seeing and testing her. Two said D5+ and one said D3.5+. Why
would they all three do that?

We started occluding today, and she seems very comfortable with her
vision. Would it be the same if the vision would be blurred? Also, as I
remember from non-cycloplegic tests her value was D5-5.5+. Wouldn't
this mean that she can accomodate the difference?

What should I do? Should I ignore last advice and make some glasses
with D8+?

.

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