Re: US credit card use in London
- From: Hatunen <hatunen@xxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 22 Aug 2006 11:26:41 -0700
On 21 Aug 2006 18:43:54 -0700, "Danglerb" <mikefordz@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
Not sure I totally understand this, so I will just toss out the numbers
from my statement, all transactions seem to have "about" the same
percent charge, this transaction occured on Aug 15, 2006 on a Chase
VISA card.
GBP 1271.18 x 1.89553071 + 72.28, charge on statement is US $ 2481.92
I don't get it: what's the $72.28 charge?
My calc shows the effective rate as 1.9524536258
*note when I worked out the first line by hand I got a difference of
72.36 instead of 72.28 as shown on the statement.
Bank of America ATM access through Barclays was GBP 250 for $477 which
is only 1.908, a MUCH better exchange rate.
"Much better"? it's sensational these days, a system charge of
about 1.3%.
Unfortunately both the credit cards we used were from Chase, so I don't
know how it compares. Anybody else have some recent transactions from
other credit card providers.
It's a subject in a constant state of flux.
************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatunen@xxxxxxx) *************
* Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow *
* My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *
.
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