Re: Hit wicket

RodP wrote:
> In article <1123414808.945526.107740@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
> FRAN says...
>
> >
> > RodP wrote:
> > > In article <42f5ef5f@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
> > > Phoenix 5 says...
> > >
> > > > Dont you have to be playing a shot? Warne had finished playing the shot and
> > > > was falling away.
> > >
> > > Nope, it's not even a requirement.
> > >
> > > Cheers,
> > > Rod.
> >
> > Just curious, doesn't the law require that he be setting off for his
> > first run after playing the shot?
>
> So when does the completion of the shot commence? The OP seems to be
> suggesting by his question that a stroke is completed when the ball
> passes the batsmen.
>
> What if the batsmen didn't offer a shot, the ball thuds into the helmet
> and dislodges it and the helmet breaks the wicket? You'd consider that
> not out? Or if the force of the ball of a batsmen standing his ground
> hits him and recoils him onto the wicket, not out?
>

A strict reading of Law 35 doesn't seem to cover that. It merely says
"bat or person" -- in this case, that's covered.

> I would suggest at an absolute minimum that the batsmen would have to
> gain control of his balance after making the stroke and stop any
> momentum towards the stumps caused by his stroke.
>

I'd agree that's a fair interpretation. I should say that I didn't
actually see the event. (Untimely phone call and insistent sister who
couldn't accept that I was "in the middle of something") I was merely
querying the interpretation of the law. The completion of a shot is a
bit like the completion of a catch. You have to be under control. If he
was off-balance and stumbled, then I'd say out.

Fran


> I recall SRW v India stepping on his stumps after playing a shot and
> IIRC he wasn't setting off for a run, but his shot forced him towards
> the stumps and he stepped on them while regaining his balance. His
> stroke was well and truly over but he didn't have control over his
> momentum. Out.
>
> Cheers,
> Rod.

.

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