Re: Poll on *Really* Wide Angle Lenses
- From: David Littlewood <david@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 21 Aug 2005 23:39:09 +0100
In article <EIWdncJjapqqQ5XeRVn-2Q@xxxxxxxxxxx>, Nostrobino <not@xxxxxxxxxx> writes
No problem - I did not take it as a personal attack. However, I still assert that mathematics is the right tool for discussing geometry.
"David Littlewood" <david@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message news:ONvZ9BC+mJCDFw23@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxIn article <su6dnQGjY9KSDpXeRVn-tQ@xxxxxxxxxxx>, Nostrobino <not@xxxxxxxxxx> writes
If you think navigation is a more appropriate tool than mathematics for discussing geometric optics and photometry, then we will just have to agree to differ.
No, not at all, but I was replying to your "Only straight lines can be parallel" assertion. I have no idea whether there is some requirement in mathematics that this must be so. If your wife, a mathematician, says it is so then I'm perfectly willing to accept that it is so *in mathematics*, but then that must be a special or at least limited case. The first definition for "parallel" in my dictionary is simply "Being an equal distance apart at every point." And again, lines of latitude are commonly called parallels and have been for centuries. Navigators do not appear to have any problem with that usage.
BTW, David, my original choice of words was probably not the best. When I wrote: "You are trying to apply some special definition which just does not fit the general case. Lines of latitude have been called parallels for centuries, still are today and I'll bet they always will be. If your wife were a navigator instead of a mathematician I'm sure she would understand this better." --I did not mean to suggest that your wife's understanding was deficient, certainly not within her own sphere of expertise. I should have said "would understand this differently" rather than ". . . better." I apologize if any misunderstanding resulted from my carelessness in language.
Think about the definition of Rieman 2-space. "Parallel lines never meet" is replaced by "Parallel lines always eventually meet". If lines of latitude were "parallel", this would become meaningless.
I have to tell you I just don't have the foggiest notion of what "Rieman 2-space" means. It's been years since I studied any flavor of geometry, and that term I don't recall ever having seen prior to this thread.
"2-space" simply means 2 dimensions. Rigorously. You are not allowed to even imagine that there is a third. However, there is no reason to think that, for a hyper-dimensional being, he would see our restricted world as a plane. It could be a sphere, or some other surface. The important thing is that we, the earthlings, don't even imagine the "other" dimensions. It should be quite easy for us earthlings, as until flight (and ignoring miners and mountaineers) we were mostly constrained thus.
Well, you got it about right. A straight line is the shortest distance between two points, which, on a spherical 2-space, even navigators (ahem, sorry) acknowledge means a great circle. Any other route (including a line of latitude other than the equator) is a curve.
I never even heard or saw the term "2-space" before a few days ago. I gather it refers to the treating of a sphere's three-dimensional surface as though it were two-dimensional, for purposes of geometric calculation.
It does all sound very interesting, but at present leaves me scratching my head.
I thought (and I accept it got so confusing I may be wrong) we were talking about rectilinear projection. If a sensor is a spherical surface, and ignoring brain or other processor algorithms, then only a great circle line on that sphere will be recognised as "straight"; anything else will record as a curve. I've almost forgotten why this mattered though...
Also, bear in mind that (as I said to someone yesterday) we were talking about the projection of straight lines on a a spherical surface in 2-space. If they are not great circles, they will not be recorded as straight lines (absent some processing algorithm).
Can you refresh my memory: why were we doing that? I don't really have any opinion, or anything to say, about "the projection of straight lines on a a spherical surface in 2-space." Is this in connection with the image formed on the retina? Because my opinion about that has been, and remains, that the exact form or nature of the retinal image is of little if any importance beyond the fact that it is the source of signals along the optic nerve that the brain sorts out to create visual perception. All the retinal image has to be is some form that the brain can make use of in that way, in other words. I presume that the image of a square, say, must be at least somewhat square-like on the retina, but I doubt that it has to follow any rules of spherical geometry.
Classical (Euclidean) geometry is based on a series of postulates by Euclid (Greek philosopher ca. 300BC). They are not something which can be proved, they just have to be assumed. The final one was "parallel lines continue to infinity and never meet, but continue to be the same distance apart". Rieman and Lobachevsky (19thC German and Russian respectively IIRC) each postulated an alternative: (a) parallel lines always meet eventually, and (b) parallel lines continuously diverge. Perfectly credible geometries result, and the former happens to coincide with what we experience here on earth: a straight line is a great circle, step a few feet away and generate another great circle in the same direction, produce them and they will meet half way round the earth. Straight lines, parallel, inevitable meet.
OK, it may be definable, but they are still not parallel.
Why should separation or perpendicularity be "not definable" on curved parallel lines? The arc still has a tangent, doesn't it? Separation would be simply the distance between inside and outside tangents, where *they* are parallel (i.e., at the closest point on one arc to any point on the other). I don't see a problem there, and I'm not a mathematician.
The dictionary disagrees with you, David. In the American Heritage Dicitonary, Second College Edition, "parallel" definition 2.d. is "Designating curves or surfaces everywhere equidistant."
If this were correct, then 2.5 millennia of Euclidean geometry has been sadly misinformed. This kind of confusion occurs when one has a scientific argument using a term rigorously defined in science and used any which way in non-science - if one side tries to use the non-science meaning, there can be no useful discussion.
The same dictionary also gives a definition I know you will like better: 2.a. "Designating two or more straight coplanar lines that do not intersect." On the other hand, of course, that is Euclidean and violates the "Rieman 2-space" rule you appear to be endorsing above. Ergo, when you speak of "a term rigorously defined in science" in this connection it's a term that you yourself are using in at least two mutually exclusive ways.
However, this is not found in high school geometry books, so lexicographers can be forgiven for not knowing it. I'm sure you have experience yourself of general dictionaries being completely in the dark for higher technical matters.
BTW, I guess a more general definition of parallel would be "two or more straight lines for which a line perpendicular to one of the lines at any point is also a perpendicular to the other(s). I must ask my wife if she agrees, but we just shared a bottle of wine with dinner and I'm not sure how receptive she would be!
David -- David Littlewood .
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