Re: The opposite..



Peter T. Daniels <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

Michael Haslam wrote:

Peter T. Daniels <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

However, regarding the word "devolution," they differ. Over there, it is
familiar from the process of according limited self-government to
Scotland and Wales. Over here, it has no such specific usage (because
the problem doesn't occur),

Naturally, as Scotland and Wales are not part of the US, unlike 10
Downing Street.

No, Michael. Because the 9th and 10th Amendments deal with relations
between the state and federal governments. Once again, you guys should
have written out a Bill of Rights some time before this millennium.

That's as may be. In some slightly cumbersome ways we now enjoy
protection under the Human Rights Act and the ultimate European Court of
Human Rights (which has nothing to do with the EU). Could not Texas or
California decide to become independent or start some process of
altering its relationship with the Union? States have been added since
the Constitution and its amendments; could they now not be taken away?

so it just means something like "unevolve."
Consult an accurate, up-to-date American desk dictionary.

Not so easy for me. Although it appears that my Chambers Etymological
Dictionary is based on US scholarship.

Really? Whose, and when?

What's published in the UK as Chambers Dictionary of Etymology and has,
to my eyes a very British look and feel, turns out to be a re-branded
version of the Barnhart Dictionary of Etymology © 1988 compiled by
Robert K. Barnhart who acknowledges the invaluable help of Sol
Steinmetz, Ralph de Gorog, Ralph L. Ward, Einar Haugen, Reason A.
Goodwin, Clarence Barnhart and Kemp Malone.
--
MJHaslam
Remove accidentals to obtain correct e-address
"Can't you show a little restraint?" - Dr. David Tholen
.



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