Re: The opposite..
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 28 Jun 2006 01:40:31 GMT
Michael Haslam wrote:
Peter T. Daniels <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
However, regarding the word "devolution," they differ. Over there, it is
familiar from the process of according limited self-government to
Scotland and Wales. Over here, it has no such specific usage (because
the problem doesn't occur),
Naturally, as Scotland and Wales are not part of the US, unlike 10
Downing Street.
No, Michael. Because the 9th and 10th Amendments deal with relations
between the state and federal governments. Once again, you guys should
have written out a Bill of Rights some time before this millennium.
so it just means something like "unevolve."
Consult an accurate, up-to-date American desk dictionary.
Not so easy for me. Although it appears that my Chambers Etymological
Dictionary is based on US scholarship.
Really? Whose, and when?
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@xxxxxxx
.
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