Re: with perfect play, should it be 1-0, 0-1, or a draw?

Chess One <OneChess@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"David Richerby" <davidr@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Chess One <OneChess@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"One obeys the rules in a finite game in order to play, but playing
does not consist of only obeying the rules..." -- James P. Carse.

Thank you but we were discussing games as an exercise in mathematics,
not philosophy. But I now see where your confusion about the nature
of finite and infinite games comes from.

You do not understand what Carse proposes

I do not claim a full understanding of what Carse has written. But I
understand it well enough to know that it is not relevant to the
current discussion. However, if you believe that Carse's proposal of
game as a metaphor and analytical tool for life is relevant to the
solution of chess, you do not understand what he was written, either.

Secondly, if logic is these days divorced from mathematics, yet
remains in play in philosophy

Logic is not divorced from mathematics.

Mathematics does not assess all, ony the quantifiable aspects of any
system. Mathematics can even not theoretically assess all, since it
is impossible to create a 1 :: 1 map.

Huh?

These are functions of logic, semantically phrased.

As far as I can see, that sentence is devoid of semantic content.

The implication is that the resolution of chess may not have to do
with mathematics any more than the location of the Canadian cheese.

The solution of chess is precisely a quantifiable aspect of a
mathematical system. It is absolutely a question of mathematics.
Other aspects of chess, such as whether it will make any difference if
we know the game-theoretic outcome of the game, are not questions of
mathematics.


Dave.

--
David Richerby Miniature Old-Fashioned Smokes (TM):
www.chiark.greenend.org.uk/~davidr/ it's like a pack of cigarettes but
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and you can hold in it your hand!
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