Re: Was This a Bad Laydown ?

Thanks to everyone.
I learned a lot from reading the replies.
If I sounded like I was stubbornly defending what I did, it was only
to generate replies, not to say I could not be wrong.
Indeed, one flaw I found in my reasoning was this:
My preflop call (I forgot to say this before) was partly predicated on
seeing whether an ace flopped. If one did, I could reasonably fold
post flop.
When no ace showed, I should have bet like a weak hand would, and then
to an expected raise, pushed all in at that point.
In short, I probably made a too-conservative fold in retrospect.
Having lost several recent hands holding KK, probably affected my
thinking.
I should not have let it do so.
Again, thanks to all.

=*=*=

On Dec 4, 12:42 pm, Will in New Haven
<bill.re...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Dec 4, 12:31 pm, "FellKnight" <jordandevenp...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Dec 4 2008 12:21 PM, John_Brian_K wrote:

Well you might as well congratulate him.  There was 1 hand that reasonably
beats you post flop.  You put him on that exact hand preflop and still
called his raise with no odds to hit a set.

Sorry if I sound like a dick, but when someone asks for advice and then
basically just says they made the right play why even ask the question in
the first place?

John

An entirely reasonable post, John (God I hate it when you do that), but
I'd like to point out that the OP was, in fact, getting correct odds to
set-mine against AA.

Meh. You are _barely_ getting the odds to call the raise IF you will
stack him every time you hit your set and your set will win every
time. That isn't great in a cash game. Here, you are giving up very
good chip utility to take a longshot at _great_ chip utility. When you
miss, you wind up with a stack that will do for the kind of tight
player the OP seems to be but isn't a really good amount for an loose-
aggressive player.

--
Will in New Haven

.

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