Re: Was the American Bombing Campaign in World War II a War Crime?

"Jim Voege" <jfvoegeNO@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:ywmeg.145$EF1.18349@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Ah. So the aggressor in the war (and let's assume this appellation is
objectively correct and not merely a victor's self-serving nomenclature)
is not entitled to the protection of those treaties that both sides have
signed? Aggression vitiates and justifies all then? If we behaved with
utter ruthlessness and immorality (and I'm not saying we did but if we
did) then our all saving justification is simply that "they started it"?

I wrote in my post that there were moral limits for the allies. I also wrote
that the allies stayed within their moral limits. That doesn't mean the
allies were perfect and never had lapses in moral judgement. However, the
broad plans laid out by allied leaders were morally justified. The broad
plans laid out by the axis leaders were not morally justified. For example,
one of the broad plans laid out by German leaders was to capture vast areas
of Russia, murder all the men, women, and children who lived there, take
over their homes and possessions, and transfer all these spoils to German
citizens who would move in and lay claim to the conquered territory. Those
were criminal plans laid out by criminals. The allies never had any such
criminal plans. Anyone who is unhappy about the events of WW2 should direct
their anger at the axis criminals who started the conflict, not at the
allies who were dragged into the conflict unwillingly. And anyone who seeks
to justify the criminal behavior of the aggressors in WW2 is morally
bankrupt.


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