Re: Why do they call it wavelength?


"Julian" <JulianPAdamsNo@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:gaj2s1tiks6n2f0lqps996sq3jlanjf9jr@xxxxxxxxxx
> On Sun, 08 Jan 2006 14:07:22 GMT, "Dave H."
> <hopefuldave_doesn't_eat_spiced_meat@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>
>
>>How about its permittivity and permeability to EM waves and fields?
>
> That part is just as easily explained by the aether.
>
>> Funnily
>>enough, if you take the root of the reciprocal of their product, you get
>>the
>>speed of light, too
>
> Interesting. You take the product of what?
>
> Julian
>

the "Permeability and Permittivity of free space - fundamental physical
constants in electromagnetism (which incudes light, of course).
If you multiply together the units the resultant is in
Seconds-squared/Metre-squared, taking the reciprocal gives a
velocity-squared term. When you put in the actual values, the V-squared term
equates toC-squared - ain't the universe simple :o)
If these were really results of an Arther, one would expect to be able to
produce a situation where the values were reduced by exclusion of the
Aether - not so far, experimentally :o(

Imho... there Ain't No Aether, regrettably - if there were, we coukld have
all the funky Doc Smith toys like reactionless drives, tractor beams (though
how you get a coherent and focussed stream of John Deeres is beyond me...)

Dave H.
(The engineer formerly known as Homeless)

and don't get me started on Zero-Point Energy and the Quantum Vacuum...


.

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